My doctor still said it made common sense not to have oral sex when cold sores on my partner were obvious but that in our monogamous stable relationship (both having had cold sores) the risks of genital herpes from this were in any case very low. I am a virgin and she has only had sex with one other guy and been intimate with another so surely the chance of us having HSV 2 is less likely given that in the vast majority of cases HSV 2 affects and is transmitted by the genitals. Isn’t it okay to assume that any cold sores we might have are only caused by HSV 1 and thus are unlikely to cause genital herpes through oral sex because of our existing immunity? Since I already have HSV1, is it possible to transmit that to him (when no symptoms are present), and vice-versa. Your partner has genital HSV-2 and you perform oral sex on him or her. I have turned down my husband endlessly on performing oral sex on me and outside of an experimental time with dental dams, that was it. Certainly genital to oral transmission of HSV-2 can occur. No child gets HSV-2 except by sexual abuse; and most kids are going to get oral HSV-1 regardless of what precautions you take at home.
Conclusions: Oral reactivation of HSV-2 as defined by viral isolation is uncommon and usually occurs in the setting of first episode of genital HSV-2 or during genital recurrence of HSV-2. Given the infrequent shedding of HSV-2 from the mouth, the risk of HSV-2 transmission from such contact appears remote and patients can be reassured that they are very unlikely to transmit in non-intimate settings.